Joint Fires Observer (JFO) Course Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which Joint Staff directorate handles logistics?
• Precision Fire is described as what?
• Which capability is listed under A-10 Capes as Long Loiter (2 hours)?
• Danger Close describes ordinance delivery at which distance?
• What is the Air Operations Center (AOC)?
• In a Polar Plot method, how is the target located?
• Which F-16 Ordnance item is a guided bomb type listed for that aircraft?
• Which statement correctly describes the sensing method of a Proximity Fuze?
• GFC stands for which of the following?
• Which munition type is explicitly listed under F-15 Strike Eagle Ordnance for air-to-ground use?
• Type 1 Control requires the ability to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target under attack, enabling direct positive control.
• How many rounds does the GAU-8/A have and how many bursts does it translate to?
• Who is the senior artilleryman at each echelon of command?
• In Laser Grid operations, how are corrections transmitted?
• GTL describes which element in targeting?
• Forward Line of Own Troops refers to which of the following?
• How many transmissions are normally used for a Call for Fire sequence?
• Which capability does JSTARS provide on the battlefield?
• Which statement is NOT true about fuze function methods?
• Danger Close for mortars and artillery is within how many meters of friendly troops?
• AWACS stands for which of the following?
• Which bomb is the 500 lb general purpose bomb?
• Which of the following is listed in the A-10 Ordnance as a type of air-to-ground ordnance?
• In the CFF example, which information is included in the read-back after the initial call?
• From a forward position, which entity directs the action of combat aircraft engaged in CAS and other offensive air operations?
• Who designates the JFACC?
• Which directorate is primarily responsible for developing and refining joint operation plans?
• Which item is included in a CFF Target Description?
• All GBU are composed of what?
• Which is a key difference of Laser Grid compared to a standard grid mission?
• Who is the Fire Support Coordinator (FSCOORD)?
• Fire Support Coordination Line describes what?
• Which directorate would you consult for coordinating airspace control and air defense integration into operations?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by the example Air Force Doctrine?
• Which is listed as an advantage of the AC-130?
• Which phrase indicates a Fire for Effect with a Laser Grid mission?
• What is an advantage of using a Laser Guided Bomb (LGB)?
• Which system increases the surveillance and command and control capabilities for air operations?
• What does Detailed Integration achieve?
• What is the Army force structure as listed, from largest to smallest units?
• What is the typical CEP range for the guided munitions described?
• What is Target Location Error?
• What is the rated high rate of fire for the 20 mm M61A1 Vulcan?
• Range Shift refers to the amount to add or drop in the nearest 100 meters from the known point to the target. Which option best describes this value?
• Terminal Attack Control entails what authority?
• What is the purpose of the Gun Target Line (GTL)?
• What is the GAU-8/A's rate of fire?
• Which of the following is a listed AC-130 mission category?
• The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) has control of air assets and the capability to plan, task, and control joint air operations. This designation is typically associated with which two components?
• Which role is trained to request, control, and adjust surface-to-surface fires and provide timely targeting information in support of CAS?
• What is the B-1B Lancer mission according to the material?
• What is the goal of Fire for Effect?
• Which statement describes Type 2 Control?
• Which combination lists all three primary mortar ammunition types?
• What does Lateral Shift measure in a JFO targeting context?
• What is the purpose of Observer Identification in a Call for Fire?
• Nose and/or tail fuzes can be used to do what?
• Which statement about Terminal Guidance Operations is accurate?
• In a fire mission, the "size of the element" refers to which unit type?
• Bomb on Coordinate statement true description?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between GBU and dumb bombs?
• Which is listed as an AC-130 limitation?
• Which of the following is NOT a documented method of target location?
• The Area Air Defense Commander (AADC) is responsible for which type of operations?
• Normal weight range for General Purpose Bombs?
• Which weapon is listed under A-10 Ordnance as a direct-fire weapon?
• Which doctrine is promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, in coordination with the combatant commanders and the joint staff?
• Which statement best describes the role of the Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC)?
• Which system provides the interface between the Army and tactical air support agencies of other services in planning, evaluating, processing, and coordinating air support requirements and operations?
• TIC stands for which term?
• Which of the following is NOT a possible content of the Method of Engagement?
• Vertical Shift is the amount up or down measured to the nearest how many meters?
• What is the function of the Net Control Station (NCS) in the JARN communications flow?
• The CBU-87 is most effective against which type of targets?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an aircraft ammunition type?
• Which item is listed as F-16 Ordnance that represents a guided bomb type?
• Which item is listed as F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that indicates a large capacity to carry ordnance?
• Which of the following is listed as an AC-130 limitation?
• Which system provides the capability to plan and conduct air operations?
• What does GTL help determine in targeting?
• Which item is a valid part of the Method of Engagement?
• What is a Command Post?
• Among participants in the CAS process, who is responsible for the effective and safe planning and execution of CAS?
• Which is an advantage of cluster munitions (CBUs)?
• The 20 mm M61A1 Vulcan is primarily used for what role?
• The CBU-87 uses how many BLU-97 submunitions?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is primarily responsible for operations planning and execution?
• Which statement best describes a Call for Fire?
• If you hear ROUNDS COMPLETE, what has happened?
• An example of multinational doctrine is NATO.
• A GPS-guided weapon is essentially what?
• Which doctrine applies to the employment of forces of a single service?
• What is the primary role of a Tactical Air Control Party (TACP)?
• Which air action requires detailed integration with ground forces?
• Which statement best describes suppression?
• What are the three purposes of a fuze?
• What is the Airspace Control Authority (ACA)?
• Which distance constitutes Danger Close?
• What is a Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU) primarily used for?
• The GAU-8/A Avenger was designed primarily as what?
• What does the WCMD INS tail kit provide after release?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is responsible for Communications Systems?
• The Joint Operations Center (JOC) is the Command Post of the Joint Force Commander and is operated by which Joint Staff directorate?
• Which transmission is sent after each round fired?
• Risk-Estimate Distance is used to estimate risk in terms of percent of friendly casualties that may result from an air strike. Distances are defined by whom?
• Which of the following describes CEP?
• Bomb on Target requires what condition?
• CBU weapons are best suited for which type of targets?
• Which pair correctly identifies the two types of adjustments?
• What transmission is sent after each round fired in artillery communications?
• Which control type allows clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement without requiring visual acquisition?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by JFIRE?
• What is the correct expansion for DCA, as it relates to air space defense?
• Coordinate-based targeting does not require tallied by aircrew.
• Which item is transmitted in the Second Transmission?
• Time Fuze: When is the delay initiated?
• Which ordnance is NOT listed for the AC-130?
• Which term refers to the airborne extension of a TACP/JTAC?
• What is the device used to initiate bomb detonation at a predetermined time and under desired circumstances?
• Which center is normally collocated with the FSCOORD?
• General Purpose Bombs characteristics include explosive weight as a percentage of total weight. What is the typical percentage?
• Which term is transmitted as SPLASH when five seconds remain before detonation?
• Which system provides near real-time data to efficiently execute the battle plan and can detect, identify, and classify targets on the ground using SAR and MTI?
• Which F-15 Strike Eagle capability is described as enabling precision targeting?
• Which representation of MAXORD/MSA values is shown in the example?
• What defines a high-angle trajectory?
• Area Fire is used for which purpose?
• Which system guides EO/IR/IRR guided weapons?
• Which statement is listed as a limitation for the F-15 Strike Eagle in the material?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles plans?
• The GAU-12/U 'Equalizer' is mounted on which AC-130 variant?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary mortar ammunition types listed?
• In Laser Polar operations, directions are accurate to the nearest how many mils?
• What capability does the WCMD INS tail kit provide after release?
• Which entities can supply targeting data?
• What is the Air Support Operations Center (ASOC) responsible for?
• What is the 1,000 foot buffer applied in the Gun Target Line concept?
• What are the four methods that cause a fuze to function?
• Which statement is true about Bomb on Target versus Bomb on Coordinate?
• Multinational Doctrine is the fundamental principle guiding the employment of forces of two or more nations in a coordinated action.
• Which statement about the AGM-65 Maverick is true?
• OPORD is best described as which of the following?
• Which SPLASH transmission timing is correct?
• What command is used to adjust fire when using a polar method?
• What is the role of the Control and Reporting Center (CRC)?
• Which item is mentioned as part of the A-10 Capes regarding survivability features?
• Which of the following is NOT a METT-TC element?
• Which role is the Joint Terminal Attack Controller?
• What does HARM stand for?
• GTL stands for what in artillery terminology?
• What is the A-10 mission according to the material?
• Which center operates as the joint operations center for air operations during joint missions?
• Which shift measures the elevation difference between the known point and the target?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six call for fire elements?
• Which statement best describes an Impact Fuze?
• What is required for an LGB to achieve accurate guidance?
• Danger Close for 5 inch naval guns and TLAM is within how many meters?
• The 40mm M2A1 'Bofors' cannon is located where on the AC-130? (and what is its rate and ammo capacity)
• If a weapon system has a CEP of 20 meters, how many bombs will drop within 20 meters of the DPI?
• Forward Air Controller (Airborne), denoted FAC (A), refers to which role?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an AC-130 mission?
• Which capability is listed for F-16 Capes that corresponds to a data link with other units?
• What does a Warning Order accomplish for a fire mission?
• What does GTL stand for?
• Sensor Fuzed Weapon (SFW) within CBU-97 detects heat and scans with which sensor?
• CBU-89 uses magnetic target sensing and deploys how much trip wire?
• What does the acronym OCA stand for?
• What is the rate of fire for the GAU-23 on the AC-130W?
• Where is the GAU-12/U located on the AC-130U?
• Which term marks the end of the planned firing sequence when the required rounds have been fired?
• The need for a JFACC is based on which of the following factors?
• Which of the following is NOT a CFF mission type?
• What is the Fires Cell responsible for?
• Which element links the Army unit to the ASOC/TACP for close air support?
• Which item is listed as a disadvantage of the AC-130?
• What is the role of Air Defense Artillery (ADA) in air defense liaison?
• What CBU is nicknamed 'Gator'?
• What does the Joint Air Operations Center (JAOC) represent in joint operations?
• Which statement correctly defines the relationship between precision weapons and accurate weapons using CEP values?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by the term JFIRE?
• What does JDAM stand for?
• What is the Joint Air Request Net (JARN) primarily used for?
• ROUNDS COMPLETE indicates that what has occurred?
• The Theater Air Control System provides the capability to plan and conduct air operations.
• Which statement describes Type 1 Control in relation to visual acquisition?
• Which term describes the most forward friendly forces position?
• Which aircraft hosts the GAU-8/A Avenger?
• Which designation refers to High Explosive Incendiary with Tracer?
• Which weapon is the A-10 equipped with as its 30mm gun?
• Proximity Fuze uses what to measure time between transmission and reception of a radar wave?
• Close Proximity represents a specific distance.
• Which capability is explicitly listed for F-16 Capes to indicate operation in all weather conditions?
• General Purpose Bombs are described as
• TRA involves processing of available information to ascertain an ALR to friendly forces or noncombatants; the supported commander will weigh the benefits and liabilities to determine a particular type of control.
• HE mortars damage their targets through which methods? (one or both)
• What is the SHOT transmission in artillery communications?
• A Warning Order includes which of the following elements?
• The GAU-23 'Bushmaster' is located on the AC-130W on which side?
• Immediate Suppression and Immediate Smoke differ from standard suppression in that:
• Which term refers to a commander authorized to exercise combatant command?
• What does the Airspace Control Order (ACO) provide?
• TOT/TTT is shown as an example of which category in fire control terminology?
• Terminal Guidance Operations description?
• The Airspace Control Authority (ACA) is primarily responsible for which of the following?
• The GAU-8/A is accurate in excess of what altitude, with armor-piercing effective within what altitude?
• What is Close Air Support?
• Which capability is listed for F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that relates to long-range targeting?
• Which term is one of the four basic categories of errors that influence air-delivered weapon accuracy?
• Which doctrine is described as the fundamental principle guiding the employment of forces of two or more services in coordinated action and is promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
• In the CFF example, what does the phrase At My Command indicate?
• When is "Adjust Fire" announced?
• Which item is included in the First Transmission besides Observer Identification?
• What is the Pi value (Probability of incapacitation) used for risk-estimate distances?
• Which designation corresponds to High Explosive Incendiary (HEI) ammunition?
• The CEP relates to delivery accuracy; which statement best describes CEP?
• Which items should be contained in the Target Description for a CFF?
• Which statement best describes the Method of Fire and Control?
• Which statement best describes CEP?
• Which statement correctly describes Air Interdiction?
• CBU-89 'Gator' is an anti-armor minefield that deploys which combination of mines?
• What is the typical AC-130 orbit altitude?
• Which capability is listed for F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that aids all-weather operations?
• What does PGM stand for in precision munitions context?
• Which CFF mission is intended to rapidly suppress a non-active target?
• Which is a disadvantage of CBUs?
• Who appoints the Joint Force Commander?
• What are the three primary ammunition types for Mortars?
• The Air Operations Center (AOC) is the operations center for which commander?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is responsible for Manpower and Personnel?
• What does the acronym DCA stand for?
• Which item is included in the Third Transmission?
• Type 2 Control corresponds to which scenario?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles intelligence?
• Which unit provides the JFACC with the capability of real-time operation control of forces and the current air picture and asset status?
• Which entity is typically designated as both the Airspace Control Authority (ACA) and Area Air Defense Commander (AADC)?
• Shifts (Lateral, Range, Vertical) describe adjustments to what?
• Which of the following is listed as an AC-130 mission category?
• Which statement best describes Precision Fire?
• Which item is included in the First Transmission?
• GBU-38 is a variant of which munition program?